sou nsg6005 Week 3 Assignment 2 Quiz latest 2017
Week 3 Assignment 2
Quiz

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Question 1.Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an
ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the
nurse practitioner should assess for:
Hypokalemia
Impotence
Decreased renal function
Inability to concentrate
Question 2. A
potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema.
Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?
Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the
most common symptoms.
It appears to be related to a decrease in
aldosterone production.
The presence of a dry, hacky
cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
Because it takes time to build up a blood
level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
Question 3. Rodrigo
has been prescribed procainamide after an episode of MI. He is monitored for
dyspnea, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema because they may
indicate:
Widening of the area of infarction
Onset of congestive heart failure
An electrolyte imbalance involving potassium
Renal dysfunction
Question 4. Which
of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?
It produces
bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions
that a slower heart rate might worsen.
GI adverse effects are common, so the drug
should be taken with food.
Adherence can be improved by using a
sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.
Doses of this drug should be taken evenly
spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.
Question 5. Furosemide
is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin.
Monitoring for this combination includes:
Hemoglobin
Serum potassium
Blood urea nitrogen
Serum glucose
Question 6. Art
is a fifty-five-year-old smoker who has been diagnosed with angina and placed
on nitrates. He complains of headaches after using his nitrate. An appropriate
reply might be:
“This is a
parasympathetic response to the vasodilating effects of the drug.”
“Headaches are common
side effects with these drugs. How severe are they?”
“This is associated with your smoking. Let’s
work on having you stop smoking.”
“This is not related to your medication. Are
you under a lot of stress?”
Question 7. Donald
has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. On the basis of his lipid profile,
atorvastatin is prescribed. Rhabdomyolysis is a rare but serious adverse
response to this drug. Donald should be told to:
Become a vegetarian since this disorder is associated with
eating red meat
Stop taking the drug if abdominal cramps and
diarrhea develop
Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark
urine to his provider immediately
Expect “hot flash” sensations during the first
two weeks of therapy
Question 8.
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated
in heart failure?
Nitrates
Long-acting dihydropyridines
Calcium channel blockers
Alpha-beta blockers
Question 9. First-line
therapy for hyperlipidemia is:
Statins
Niacin
Lifestyle changes
Bile acid-binding resins
Question 10. Patients
who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring of:
Complete blood count every four weeks
Hematocrit and hemoglobin at one week and then
at eight weeks
Reticulocyte count at one week
Folate levels every four weeks until the
hemoglobin stabilizes
Question 11. Isosorbide
dinitrate is a long-acting nitrate given twice daily (BID). The schedule for
administration is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because:
Long-acting forms have a higher risk for
toxicity.
Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse
effect.
It must be taken with milk or food.
Nitrate tolerance can develop.
Question 12. The
New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have
described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with
unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is:
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Question 13. Which
of the following drugs has been associated with increased risk for MI in women?
Aspirin
Beta blockers
Estrogen replacement
Lipid-lowering agents
Question 14. Scott
is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total
cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already
implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly
elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
Niacin (Niaspan)
Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
Question 15. An
ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients
with diabetes better than either drug alone?
Beta blockers
Diuretics
Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Angiotensin II receptor blockers
Question 16. Jose
is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180
mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending
increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with
a reevaluation in six months.
statins
niacin
sterols
bile acid-binding resins
Question 17. Which
of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective
beta blocker?
Asthma might worsen.
Diabetes might worsen.
Both might worsen.
Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
Question 18. At
which stage/classification of hypertension should drug therapy be instituted
according to the JNC-7 Report?
Prehypertension
Stage 1
Stage 2
Any stage where the blood pressure is greater
than 120/80 mm Hg
Question 19. Beta
blockers treat hypertension because they:
Reduce peripheral resistance.
Vasoconstrict coronary arteries.
Reduce norepinephrine.
Reduce angiotensin II production.
Question 20. Because
primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, treatment is based on
interfering with the physiological mechanisms that regulate blood pressure.
Thiazide diuretics treat hypertension because they:
Increase renin secretion.
Decrease the production of aldosterone.
Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume.
Decrease blood viscosity.
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