nsg6005 all week quizzes latest 2017

Week 1 Assignment 3
Quiz

Question 1. The
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:

Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs

The official labeling for all prescriptions
and over-the-counter drugs

Off-label recommendations for prescribing

Pharmaceutical educational offerings

Question 2. The
U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):

ters the manufacturers of,
and those who are prescribers of controlled substances.

Regulates NP prescribing at the state level

Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label

Provides prescribers with a number they can
use for insurance billing

Question 3. Precautions
that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:

Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug
directly to the pharmacy

Using tamper-proof papers for all
prescriptions written for controlled drugs

Keeping any presigned prescription pads in a
locked drawer in the clinic

Using only numbers to indicate the amount of
drug to be prescribed

Question 4. Alterations
in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

Slower metabolism of antidepressants,
requiring lower doses

Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring
higher doses

Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring
higher doses

Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher
doses

Question 5. Incorporating
IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the
provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is
using by:

Turning the screen around so the patient can
see material being recorded

Not placing the computer screen between the
provider and the patient

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 6. Pharmacokinetics
among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

True

False

Question 7. The
developmental variation in Phase I enzymes has what impact on pediatric
prescribing?

None; Phase I enzymes
are stable throughout childhood

Children should
always be prescribed lower than adult doses per weight due to low enzyme
activity until puberty

Children should
always be prescribed higher than adult doses per weight due to high enzyme
activity

Prescribing dosages
will vary based on the developmental activity of each enzyme, at times
requiring lower than adult doses and at other times requiring higher than adult
doses based on the age of the child

Question 8. Drugs
that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include:

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine

Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate

All of the above

Question 9. What
impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for
infants and children?

Lower doses of renally excreted
drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

Higher doses of water-soluble
drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion

Renal excretion rates have no impact on
prescribing

Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs
are renally excreted or not

Question 10. Liza
is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires
an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the
infant?

Maternal drug levels

Half-life

Lipid solubility

All of the above

Week 2 Assignment 2
Quiz

1. Question
:A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is
critical to prescribing because:

Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be
affected

The solubility of the drug will not match the
site of absorption

There will be less free drug available to
generate an effect

Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by
the kidney

Question 2. Drugs
that have a significant first-pass effect:

Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only

Bypass the hepatic circulation

Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may
have little if any desired action

Are converted by the liver to more active and
fat-soluble forms

Question 3. An
advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:

Absorbed rapidly

Excreted rapidly

Metabolized minimally

Distributed equally

Question 4. Which
one of the following statements about bioavailability is true?

Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs
with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.

All brands of a drug
have the same bioavailability.

Drugs that are administered
more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.

Combining an active
drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

Question 5. The
route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:

The kidneys

The lungs

The bile and feces

The skin

Question 6. The
time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:

Steady state

Half-life

Phase II metabolism

Reduced bioavailability time

Question 7. The
elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:

Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to
higher volume of distribution

The extensive studies
that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group

The blood-brain
barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic
effect

Age-related decrease
in renal function

Question 8. Patient
education regarding prescribed medication includes:

Instructions written at the high school
reading level

Discussion of expected ADRs

How to store leftover medication such as
antibiotics

Verbal instructions always in English

Question 9. Pharmacokinetic
factors that affect prescribing include:

Therapeutic index

Minimum effective concentration

Bioavailability

Ease of titration

Question 10. Drugs
that use CYP3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:

Induce the metabolism of another drug

Inhibit the metabolism of another drug

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Week 3 Assignment 2
Quiz

Question 1.Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an
ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the
nurse practitioner should assess for:

Hypokalemia

Impotence

Decreased renal function

Inability to concentrate

Question 2. A
potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema.
Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the
most common symptoms.

It appears to be related to a decrease in
aldosterone production.

The presence of a dry, hacky cough
indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

Because it takes
time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one
week.

Question 3. Rodrigo
has been prescribed procainamide after an episode of MI. He is monitored for
dyspnea, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema because they may
indicate:

Widening of the area of infarction

Onset of congestive heart failure

An electrolyte imbalance involving potassium

Renal dysfunction

Question 4. Which
of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?

It produces
bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions
that a slower heart rate might worsen.

GI adverse effects
are common, so the drug should be taken with food.

Adherence can be
improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.

Doses of this drug
should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.

Question 5. Furosemide
is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin.
Monitoring for this combination includes:

Hemoglobin

Serum potassium

Blood urea nitrogen

Serum glucose

Question 6. Art
is a fifty-five-year-old smoker who has been diagnosed with angina and placed
on nitrates. He complains of headaches after using his nitrate. An appropriate
reply might be:

“This is a
parasympathetic response to the vasodilating effects of the drug.”

“Headaches are common
side effects with these drugs. How severe are they?”

“This is associated
with your smoking. Let’s work on having you stop smoking.”

“This is not related
to your medication. Are you under a lot of stress?”

Question 7. Donald
has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. On the basis of his lipid profile,
atorvastatin is prescribed. Rhabdomyolysis is a rare but serious adverse
response to this drug. Donald should be told to:

Become a vegetarian since this disorder is associated with
eating red meat

Stop taking the drug
if abdominal cramps and diarrhea develop

Report muscle
weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately

Expect “hot flash”
sensations during the first two weeks of therapy

Question 8.

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated
in heart failure?

Nitrates

Long-acting dihydropyridines

Calcium channel blockers

Alpha-beta blockers

Question 9. First-line
therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

Statins

Niacin

Lifestyle changes

Bile acid-binding resins

Question 10. Patients
who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring of:

Complete blood count every four weeks

Hematocrit and hemoglobin at one week and then
at eight weeks

Reticulocyte count at one week

Folate levels every four weeks until the
hemoglobin stabilizes

Week 4 Assignment 2
Quiz

1. Question
: Many patients self-medicate
with antacids. Which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate
antacids without discussing with their providers or a pharmacist first?

Patients with kidney stones

Pregnant patients

Patients with heartburn

Postmenopausal women

Question 2. A
patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose

Systemic corticosteroid burst

Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists

Leukotriene therapy

Question 3.

When prescribing montelukast (Singulair) for asthma,
patients or parents of patients should be instructed as follows:

Montelukast twice a day is started when there
is an asthma exacerbation.

Patients may experience weight gain on
montelukast.

Aggression, anxiety, depression, and/or
suicidal thoughts may occur when taking montelukast.

Lethargy and hypersomnia may occur when taking
montelukast.

Question 4.

Lifestyle changes are the first step in the treatment of
GERD. A food that may aggravate GERD is:

Eggs

Honey Dew

Chocolate

Chicken

Question 5. Kelly
has diarrhea and is wondering if she can take loperamide (Imodium) for the
diarrhea. Loperamide:

Can be given to patients of all ages,
including infants and children, for viral gastroenteritis

Slows gastric motility and reduces fluid and
electrolyte loss from diarrhea

Is the treatment of choice for the diarrhea
associated with E. coli 0157

May be used in pregnancy and by lactating
women

Question 6.

Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a
prescription of:

Fluticasone (Flonase)

Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom)

Any of the above

Question 7.

When treating a patient using the “step-down” approach, the
patient with GERD is started on ____ first.

antacids

histamine 2 receptor antagonists

prokinetics

PPIs

Question 8.

Cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic
decongestant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what
population?

Older adults

Hypertensive patients

Infants

All of the above

Question 9. Josie
is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history
of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and
her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous
(IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of
the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Meclizine (Antivert)

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Question 10. Patients
with pheochromocytoma should avoid which of the following classes of drugs due
to the possibility of developing hypertensive crisis?

Expectorants

Beta 2 agonists

Antitussives

Antihistamines

Week 5 Assignment 2
Quiz

1. Question
: Jake, a forty-five-year-old
patient with schizophrenia, was recently hospitalized for acute psychosis due
to medication noncompliance. He was treated with intramuscular (IM) long-acting
haloperidol. Besides being monitored for his schizophrenia symptoms, the
patient should be assessed by his primary care provider:

For excessive weight loss

With the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale
(AIMS) for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) symptoms

Monthly for tolerance to the haloperidol

Only by the mental health provider as most
nurse practitioners in primary care do not care for mentally ill patients

Question 2 Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a
prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is
prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing
phentermine.

Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should
only be prescribed for six months.

Patients should be monitored for postural
hypotension.

Renal function should be monitored closely
while the patient is on anorexiants.

Question 3. Cara
is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for
levetiracetam includes reminding her:

To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due
to the risk of withdrawal seizures

To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity
from levetiracetam

To get an annual eye exam while on
levetiracetam

To report weight loss if it occurs

Question 4. A
nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone
includes observing for common side effects, including:

Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Excessive weight gain

Hypertension

Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

Question 5. Prior
to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule
out:

Hypothyroidism

Anemia

Diabetes mellitus

Low estrogen levels

Question 6. An
appropriate first-line drug to try for mild to moderate generalized anxiety
disorder would be:

Alprazolam (Xanax)

Diazepam (Valium)

Buspirone (Buspar)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Question 7. Monitoring
for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

ADHD symptoms

Routine height and weight checks

Amount of methylphenidate being used

All of the above

Question 8. Six-year-old
Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She
should be monitored for:

Increased seizure activity as this drug may
auto-induce seizures

Altered renal function, including renal
failure

Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but
possible

CNS excitement, leading to insomnia

Question 9. An
appropriate first-line drug for the treatment of depression with fatigue and
low energy would be:

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Buspirone (Buspar)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Question 10. Cecilia
presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all
the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her
would be:

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Week 6 Assignment 2
Quiz

1.Question : Xi,
a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond
well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan)
because it works well for her friend. Which of the following actions would you
take for appropriate decision making?

Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only
give her four tablets with no refills.

Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her
observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.

Explain that rizatriptan is not used for
postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).

Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the
explanation that it is the most effective triptan.

Question 2. Chronic
pain is a complex problem. Some specific strategies to deal with it include
________.

telling the patient to “let pain be your
guide” to using treatment therapies

prescribing pain medication on a pro re nata
(PRN) basis to keep down the amount used

scheduling return visits on a regular basis
rather than waiting for poor pain control to drive the need for an appointment

All the given options

Question 3. Phil
is starting treatment with febuxostat (Uloric). Education of patients starting
febuxostat includes which one of the following instructions?

Gout may worsen with therapy.

Febuxostat may cause severe diarrhea.

The patients should consume a high-calcium
diet.

The patients will need frequent CBC
monitoring.

Question 4. The
Pain Management Contract is most appropriate for:

Patients with a history of chemical dependency
or possible inappropriate use of pain medications

All patients with chronic pain who will
require long-term use of opiates

Patients who have a complex drug regimen

Patients who see multiple providers for pain
control

Question 5. Patients
whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second
prescription for _________.

metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes

omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent
peptic ulcer disease

naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain

furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid
retention

Question 6. Sallie
has been taking 10 mg of prednisone per day for the past six months. She should
be assessed for ________.

gout

iron deficiency anemia

osteoporosis

renal dysfunction

Question 7. All
NSAIDs have an FDA black box warning regarding __________.

potential for causing life-threatening GI
bleeds

increased risk of developing systemic
arthritis with prolonged use

risk of life-threatening rashes, including
Stevens-Johnson

potential for transient changes in serum
glucose

Question 8. Which
of the following statements is true about age and pain?

Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal
system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the
preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

Older adults who have dementia probably do not
experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

Acetaminophen is especially useful in both
children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse
effects than NSAIDs.

Question 9. Kirk
sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate
pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

ibuprofen (Advil)

acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)

oxycodone (OxyContin)

oral morphine (Roxanol)

Question 10. Patients
who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need
monitoring of __________.

serum glucose

stool culture

folate levels

vitamin B12

Week 7 Assignment 2
Quiz

1.Question :

A twenty-two-year-old woman receives a prescription for oral
contraceptives. Education for this patient includes:

Counseling regarding decreasing or not smoking
while taking oral contraceptives

Advising a monthly pregnancy test for the
first three months she is taking the contraceptive

Advising that she may miss two pills in a row
and not be concerned about pregnancy

Informing her that her next follow-up visit is
in one year for a refill and “annual exam”

Question 2. Sallie
has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is asking about the once-a-month pill
to treat her condition. How do bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis?

By selectively activating estrogen pathways in
the bone

By reducing bone resorption by inhibiting PTH

By reducing bone resorption and inhibiting
osteoclastic activity

By increasing PTH production

Question 3. Elderly
patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be
monitored for:

Excessive sedation

Tachycardia and angina

Weight gain

Cold intolerance

Question 4. Intranasal
calcitonin is used in the treatment of osteoporosis. For which patient is
Calcitonin therapy appropriate?

Thin, Caucasian perimenopausal women

Men over the age of sixty-five years with
osteoporosis

Women over the age of sixty-five years with
osteopenia

Women over the age of sixty-five years with
severe osteoporosis

Question 5. The
ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate
(Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
scans

Annual vitamin D level

Annual renal function evaluation

Electrolytes every three months

Question 6. When
starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient
education would include the following:

He or she should feel symptomatic improvement
in one to two weeks.

Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy
and dry skin may occur.

It may take four to eight weeks to get to
euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine,
its doses should not be missed.

Question 7. Medroxyprogesterone
(Depo Provera) injection has an US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) black box
warning due to:

Development of significant hypertension

Increased risk of strokes when on Depo

Decreased bone density while on Depo

Risk of life-threatening rash such as
Stevens-Johnson

Question 8. A
woman who has migraine with aura:

Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction
between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices

Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an
increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen

Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an
increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

May be prescribed estrogen without any
concerns

Question 9. The
drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy
years old is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Question 10. The
drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy
years is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Week 8 Assignment 2
Quiz

1.Question :

When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type
II diabetes, some form of insulin may be added to the treatment regimen to
control blood glucose and limit complications risks. Which of the following
statements are accurate based on research?

Premixed insulin analogues are better at
lowering hemoglobin A1c and have less risk for hypoglycemia.

Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed
insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral antidiabetic
agents.

Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering
hemoglobin A1c and postprandial glucose levels than are long-acting insulins.

Patients who are not controlled on oral agents
and have postprandial hyperglycemia can have NPH insulin added at bedtime.

Question 2. Lispro
is an insulin analogue produced by recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
technology. Which of the following statements about this form of insulin is not
true?

The optimal time of preprandial injection is
fifteen minutes.

The duration of action is increased when the
dose is increased.

It is compatible with NPH insulin.

It has no pronounced peak.

Question 3. Unlike
most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low
body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable
indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

Weight loss in previously overweight persons

Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less
than six months

Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month
period

Increase in central versus peripheral body
adiposity

Question 4. Sulfonylureas
may be added to a treatment regimen for type II diabetics when lifestyle
modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels.
Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:

Increase endogenous insulin secretion.

Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia.

Address the insulin resistance found in type
II diabetics.

Improve insulin binding to receptors.

Question 5. The
drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children
with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

Metformin and insulin

Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine

Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists

Biguanides and insulin lispro

Question 6. Nonselective
beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because
they:

Increase blood glucose levels.

Produce unexplained diaphoresis.

Interfere with the ability of the body to
metabolize glucose.

Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose
levels.

Question 7. Diagnostic
criteria for diabetes include:

Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
on two occasions

Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140
mg/dl

Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two
occasions

Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood
glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Question 8. Adam
has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits a
knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught
that:

He should increase his CHO intake during times
of exercise.

Each brand of insulin is equal in
bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.

Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help
control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.

If he does not want to learn to give himself
injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.

Question 9. Both
ACE inhibitors and some angiotensin-II receptor blockers have been approved in
treating:

Hypertension in diabetic patients

Diabetic nephropathy

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 10. Before
prescribing metformin, the provider should:

Draw a serum creatinine level to assess renal
function.

Try the patient on insulin.

Prescribe a thyroid preparation if the patient
needs to lose weight.

All of the above options are .

Week 9 Assignment 3
Quiz

Question 1. Jonathan
has been diagnosed with strep throat and needs a prescription for an
antibiotic. He says the last time he had penicillin he developed a red, blotchy
rash. The appropriate antibiotic to prescribe would be:

Penicillin VK, since his rash does not sound
like a serious rash

Amoxicillin

Cefadroxil (Duricef)

Erythromycin

Question 2. Tetracyclines
are contraindicated in children younger than 8 years because of:

Risk of developing cartilage problems

Development of significant diarrhea

Risk of kernicterus

Adverse effects on bone growth

Question 3. Lisa
is a healthy non-pregnant adult woman who recently had a UTI. She is asking
about drinking cranberry juice to prevent a recurrence of the UTI. The answer to give her would be:

“Sixteen ounces per day of cranberry juice
cocktail will pre

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