NRNP6635 Midterm Exam June Latest 2023
Question 11 pts

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Select the two most important elements of the psychiatric interview to establish a mental illness diagnosis.
Psychiatric history
Family history
Mental status examination
Review of systems
Which imaging test of the central nervous system is most helpful with examinging the brain for differentiating between normal aging, mild cognitive impairment, and Alzheimer’s disease?
MRI
CT
PET
MRA
Select the age stage of life in which identity crisis typically emerges.
Childhood
Adolescence
Middle adult
Elderly adult
Select the two most commonly co-occurring anxiety disorders that may present with generalized anxiety disorder.
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
Dissociative disorder Obsessive
Compulsive Disorder
Delusional disorder
The two most commonly co-occurring anxiety disorders that may present with generalized anxiety disorder are:
The functional imaging of the central nervous system to examine specific biochemical processes that excludes one of the options listed is:
Select the age group in which adjustment disorders occur most frequently.
Childhood
Middle adult
Young adult
Adolescent
Select the life stage at which a child engages in more interactive play, masters aggression, and learns cooperation and sharing skills.
Toddler
Infancy
Middle years
Preschool
What is the name for hair pulling disorder?
Wernicke-Korsakoff
Excoriation Disorder
Trichotillomania
Turner Syndrome
Select the two symptoms that result from prolonged sleep deprivation.
Ambition
Hallucinations
Contentedness
Irritability
The key feature that separates social anxiety disorder from someone with mild speaking engagement anxiety is:
A. the level of anxiety is disabling
B. occurs while one is scrutinized and includes fear of negative judgment
C. Neither A and B are true
D. Both A and B are true
The key feature that separates social anxiety disorder from someone with mild speaking engagement anxiety is that social anxiety disorder involves both the level of anxiety being disabling and the fear of negative judgment while being scrutinized.
Select the feature most indicative of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
Bradycardia
Relaxation of skeletal muscles
Dreaming
Tachypnea
A common physical finding for patients with eating disorders who binge and purge is:
bulging eyes damaged
teeth enamel low
set ears
enlarged pupils
Select the comorbidity most commonly occurring with intermittent explosive disorder.
Narcissism
Pyromania
Depersonalization
Kleptomania
The “creepy-crawly” feeling and subjective uncomfortable sensation of limbs with urge to move legs while resting or falling asleep is known as:
Periodic Limb Movement
Disorder Sleep-Related
Cramps REM Sleep Behavior
Disorder Restless Leg Syndrome
Which rating scale is recommended for measuring health and disability?
WHODAS 2.0
BDI CAPS
Conners
Rating Scale
Select the sleep disorder in which cataplexy is a common symptom.
Central apnea
Somnambulence
Insomnia
Narcolepsy
Select the neurotransmitter dysregulation that is most directly involved with Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
GABA
Select the medical condition that must be excluded as a cause of somatic symptom disorder or hypochondriasis.
Angina pectoris Asthma Diabetes Multiple sclerosis
Select the anxiety disorder that is most associated with selective mutism in children,
Social
Generalized
Separation
Phobic
At what age do the emotional skills of shame, pride, envy, and embarrassment appear in healthy emotional develop5ment?
5-10 years old
3-5 years old
1-2 years old
6 months old
Neurovegetative symptoms of depression include all of the following EXCEPT:
Inattention
Insomnia
Anergia
Racing Thoughts
Select the scientist who is most associated with the development of the concept of the conditioned reflex learning theory.
Piaget
Ainsworth
Bowlby
Pavlov
What psychiatric disorder is most common among patients with night-eating syndrome?
Anxiety Disorder
Depressive Disorder
Mania Disorder
Obsessive Disorder
Select the motivation in pyromania that is absent in patients who commit arson.
Financial gain
Revenge Affective arousal
Power
Gender identity begins to manifest at 18 months of age and is often fixed by 24-30 months.
True
False
The following neurocognitive disorder is caused by thiamine deficiency likely related to chronic alcohol use:
Alcoholic blackouts
Multiple Sclerosis
Korsakoff Syndrome
Transient Global Amnesia
When documenting thought processes during assessment, flight of ideas means:
Group of answer choices
over verbalizes details and material not relevant to the subject or question asked but does eventually return to the subject or question ask difficult and impossible to see any connection in content rapidly moving from one thought to another at pace difficult for others to keep up with but thoughts are connected repetitively returning to same topic even with attempts of redirection to another topic
Select the treatment of choice for identity crisis.
Antidepressant drugs
Behavioral modification
Antianxiety drugs
Individual psychotherapy
Children with a first-degree relative diagnosed with major depression are three times more likely to develop the disorder than those children without a family history of depression.
True
False
Which of the following is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
Histamine
Dopamine
Serotonin
GABA
School phobia and excessive clinging to parents may be symptoms of depression in teenagers.
True
False
Select the most common stressor of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder diagnosis in women.
Accidental fall
Childbirth
Sexual assault
Marital Separation
Select the neurotransmitter that is most genetically involved in childhood and adolescent depression.
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Dopamine
Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
Select the most common sleep disorder reported by patients.
Parasomnia
Hypersomnia
Insomnia
Apnea
What is the name for the disorder of repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places?
Euresis
Encopresis
Edwards’ syndrome
Epilepsy
Select the type of amnesia in which patients are aware of their memory loss with repeated questioning.
Substance related
Posttraumatic
Transient global
Dissociative
Select the disorder in which children are irritable and display temper outbursts, but are not likely to cause physical harm to themselves and others.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Conduct Disorder
Anxiety Disorder
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Select the symptom that is least associated with manic and hypomanic episodes.
Suicidal ideation
Inflated self-esteem
Distractibility
Pressured speech
Select the two diverse symptoms of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.
Rituals
Flashbacks
Loose associations
Intrusive thoughts
The two diverse symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) are:
Select the patient evaluation scale to be used before and during prescribing antipsychotic drugs.
MMSE
AIMS
CAGE
HAM-D
The following is NOT an endocrine change noted with anorexia nervosa:
Increased
Glucose
Hypothyroidism
Hypersecretion of corticotrophin-releasing hormone
Amenorrhea
Panic disorder is diagnosed if the patient worries for 14 days after 1 panic attack episode.
True
False
Select the most important component of the patient-provider rapport.
Empathy
Confidentiality
Respect
Privacy
Select the function that is most affected by conversion disorder.
Voluntary motor
Hearing
Involuntary motor
Smelling
According to Bowlby’s theory of anxiety, what is fundamental to the growth of attachment in an infant?
Loud noises
Exposure to strangers
Mother’s ability to relieve infant anxiety
Placing the infant in isolated areas
Esther is a 48-year-old female who was recently diagnosed with cancer and underwent a double mastectomy. Select the psychiatric disorder that occurs most commonly in patients hospitalized for medical problems and surgery.
Group of answer choices
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Adjustment Disorder
ADHD Bipolar
I Disorder
The psychiatric disorder that occurs most commonly in patients hospitalized for medical problems and surgery is adjustment disorder. Adjustment disorder is characterized by the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to a significant stressor, such as a serious illness, major surgery, or other life-changing events. The diagnosis of adjustment disorder is particularly relevant in the context of acute medical conditions or hospitalization. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, ADHD, and Bipolar I Disorder are less commonly associated with hospitalization for medical problems and surgery.
The two clinical subtypes for anorexia nervosa diagnosis are:
food restricting
binging
purging
hoarding
The two clinical subtypes for anorexia nervosa diagnosis are:
Select the age in which rumination disorder (food swallowed but not digested, is regurgitated) occurs most frequently.
Male infants aged 3 to 12 months
Female infants 6 to 18 months
Children aged 2 to 5 years
Adolescents aged 13 to 15 years
Select the type of dissociative amnesia described by patient’s inability to recall any information about her or his family.
Selective
Localized
Continuous
Systematized
When does fear become a phobia diagnosis?
when the fear is irrational the fear last at least 6 months All of the above are true None of the above are true
Differential diagnosis for consideration when suspecting a cyclothymic disorder include:
Seizures Substance abuse
Narcissistic
Personality Disorder
All of the above
Select the two comorbid disorders with which PICA occurs most commonly.
Enuresis
Encopresis
Autism
Intellectual disability
The two comorbid disorders with which PICA occurs most commonly are:
Select the most likely stressor to cause an adjustment disorder.
Medical illness
Natural disaster
Vehicle accident
Substance abuse
Select the rating scale used to assess significant alcohol problem.
BPRS
CAGE
YBOCS
CAPS
Select the factor that is included in DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for a Posttraumatic Stress Disorder diagnosis from a stressor.
Intense horror
Isolated experience
Survivor’s guilt
Concurrent substance abuse
Encopresis is a specific indicator of sexual abuse.
True
False
Diagnosis for enuresis should NOT be made until after age 5 years old for children.
True
False
What is the primary goal of data collection during the psychiatric interview?
To obtain the family’s perception of the patient’s health and illness
To explain the provider’s perception of the patient’s health and illness
To obtain the patient’s perception of their health and illness
To obtain statistics regarding the patient’s health and illness
The DSM-5-TR symptom specifier for Central Sleep Apnea includes:
Group of answer choices
Cheyne-Stokes breathing Idiopathic Central Sleep Apnea Central Sleep Apnea comorbid with opioid use All of the above
The clinician must realize a complete and accurate patient history is never truly obtained and assessment is always ongoing, treatment evolving, and outcomes reassessed.
True
False
Select the obsessive-compulsive disorder for which a patient is likely to initially seek help from a Primary Care Provider.
Group of answer choices
Hoarding Excoriation Hair-pulling Body dysmorphia
Select the disorder in which substance abuse comorbidity occurs at a rate of 5% to 10% of patients.
Panic Disorder
Agoraphobia
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Cyclothymia
Characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome in newborns include all EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices
Thick lower lip Inner epicanthal folds Microphthalmia Hypertelorism
Select the youngest age range at which alarm therapy is effective to treat enuresis.
11 to 12 years
9 to 10 years
6 to 7 years
5 to 6 months
What is the name of the DSM-5-TR diagnosis where patients impulsively steal objects even though they do not need or have any value to the objects which they could easily afford?
Pyromania
Hypomania
Kleptomania
Hypermania
What section of the brain regulates human emotional drives?
Brain Stem
Frontal Cortex
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Select the most influential source of bias in a mental status examination.
Culture
Genetics
Environment
Age
Select the neurotransmitter that is most involved in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia.
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
TRUE OR FALSE: A diagnosis of Social Pragmatic Communication Disorder requires the child never has symptoms of restricted interest and repetitive behaviors.
True
False
According to the DSM-5 diagnostic specifier, an individual with an estimated IQ of ________ would be diagnosed with Intellectual Disability, moderate:
89-69
69-50
49-35
under 35
Select the two common characteristics of illness anxiety disorder.
Avoidance of provider evaluation
increased somatic symptoms
Frequent provider visits
Presence of a fixed delusion
The two common characteristics of illness anxiety disorder are:
Select the least extent of sleep debt that can cause hypersomnolence.
4 hours per night for one month
3 hours per night for two weeks
2 hours per night for one week
1 hour per night for three days
According to diagnostic criteria of the DSM-5-TR, Generalized Anxiety Disorder symptoms of excessive anxiety and worry must persist for a minimum of 3 months.
True
False
Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcus (PANDAS) is a differential diagnosis for which DSM-5-TR disorder?
Major Depressive
Disorder Obsessive
Compulsive Disorder
Schizophrenia Cyclothymia
Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcus (PANDAS) is a differential diagnosis for which DSM-5-TR disorder?
Major Depressive
Disorder Obsessive
Compulsive Disorder
Schizophrenia Cyclothymia
Select the two characteristics of impulses that are usually absent from compulsions.
Pleasure seeking
Psychosocial impairment
Committing actions
Repetitive performance
The two characteristics of impulses that are usually absent from compulsions are:
Select two imaging methods used to study anxiety disorders.
CT
TMS
MRI
ECT
The two imaging methods used to study anxiety disorders are:
Select the DSM-5-TR disorder formerly called multiple personality disorder.
Depersonalization
Dissociative fugue
Dissociative identity
Derealization
Select the most important mediator of the stress response:
Group of answer choices
Corticotrophin-releasing hormone Neuropeptide Y GABA Galanin
Select the most important mediator of the stress response:
Group of answer choices
Corticotrophin-releasing hormone Neuropeptide Y GABA Galanin
Select the two complications in diagnosing patients with anorexia nervosa.
Determining occurrence of substance abuse
Denial of symptoms
Insisting weight loss has a medical cause
Secrecy regarding eating rituals
The two complications in diagnosing patients with anorexia nervosa are:
Urine drug screening tests have high false-positive rates due to interactions with prescribed medications and foods; as well as, high false-negative rates due to problems with specimen collection and storage.
True
False
All of the following laboratory tests are helpful when assessing for potential alcohol abuse EXCEPT:
AST
GGT
EOS
ALT
On the other hand, AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase), GGT (Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase), and ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase) are commonly used liver function tests that can be helpful in assessing for potential alcohol abuse. These liver enzymes can be elevated in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol, as alcohol can cause liver damage and inflammation. Elevated levels of AST, GGT, and ALT can indicate alcohol-related liver problems.
By what age should children developmentally be able to share and engage in cooperative play?
1
2
3
4
Select the mood disorder that frequently coexists in children and adolescents with Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder.
Group of answer choices
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Major depression Dysthymia Panic Disorder
Episodes of major depression and hypomania are the main characteristics of:
Group of answer choices
Dysthymia Bipolar I Disorder Major Depressive Disorder Bipolar II Disorder
Mothers with high anxiety are more likely to have irritable and hyperactive babies with feeding and sleeping difficulties than mothers with low anxiety levels.
True
False
Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices
Microcephaly Midface hypoplasia Growth retardation with weight/height Scanty Lanugo
Select the rating scale used to assess obsessive-compulsive disorder.
HAM-A
CAGE
YBOCS
CAPS
Select the exposure to violence that is excluded as a DSM-5-TR diagnostic criterion for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder diagnosis in children and adolescents.
Listening to music
Directly witnessed traumatic events
Report of family member traumatic event
Repeated natural disaster experiences’
Select the disorder in children and adolescents that is described by depressed or irritable mood for most of the day for a majority of days in at least one year.
Major depression disorder
Cyclothymia
Bereavement
Persistent depressive disorder
A patient’s “insight” in the psychiatric evaluation refers to:
the patient’s ability to identify similarities between like objects or concepts
the capacity of the patient to make good decisions and act on them
the patient’s understanding of how they are feeling, presenting, and functioning as well as potential causes
All of the above are true
Select the most likely event to cause an adjustment disorder.
Natural disaster
Marital Separation
Vehicle accident
Sexual Abuse
Select two brain regions that are associated with anxiety disorders.
Substantia nigra
Locus ceruleus
Temporal lobe
Raphe nuclei
Select the two assessment tools used primarily for patients with a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
The two assessment tools primarily used for patients with a diagnosis of schizophrenia are:
Select the environment in which children are most likely to display selective mutism.
Select the environment in which children are most likely to display selective mutism.
Church
Home
Playground
Classroom
In normal language development, at what age would you see the beginning of grammar formation?
12-18 months
12-24 months
24-36 months
36-54 months
Abuse of volatile solvents can create psychoactive effects for patients. Known volative solvents to be abused are all the following EXCEPT:
Dry Eye Tear Drops Gasoline Paint thinner Whipped cream aerosols
When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?
Yes
No
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