3P Exam Questions Latest 2021

3P’s EXAM

1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
   1. have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen
   2. dilated the eye and retest
   3. refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
   4. document this as a normal finding

 

1. The American psychiatric association’s diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorder defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy
   1. a self-inflicted injury to gain attention
   2. a caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care
   3. an abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver
   4. a situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim

 

Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick.

 

 

1. Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
   1. dopamine          serotonin, norepinephrine
   2. gabapentin
   3. mil
   4. cortisol

 

1. Which lesion is dark raised and asymmetric with irregular border? Quizlet Bates Chapter 20
   1. Nevus
   2. Actinic keratosis
   3. Keratoacanthoma
   4. Melanoma

 

1. A 32 years old woman presents with dull puffiness of the ayes pronounced not pitting periorbital edema this finding is suggestive of this condition? APEA
   1. Nephrotic syndrome
   2. Myxedema
   3. Cushing syndrome
   4. Sinusitis

Myxedema is a deposition of mucopolysaccarides in the dermis. Is commonly found if patients with advanced hypothyroidism. The classic skin changes are: swelling of face, lips, eyelids, and tongue or swelling and thickening of skin anywhere on the body, especially in the lower legs.

Myxedema is the hallmark of Grave’s disease, an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism. Myxedema can also occur in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis a form of hypothyroidism.

 

1. A 42 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the Nurse practitioner prescribe?
   1. Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
   2. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
   3. Verapamil (verelan)
   4. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

 

Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepresant and is considered offlabel use for prophylactic treatment of migrane. Sumatriptan (Imimtrex) Is aTriptans used to abort migraine

 

1. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia. This clinical finding is consistent with:
   1. Tinea capitis
   2. Seborrheic dermatitis
   3. Trichotillomania
   4. Alopecia areata

 

1. What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches?
   1. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Propanolol (Inderal)

1. Ibuprofeno (motrin)
2. Dihydroergotamine (DHE)

 

1. Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36 year old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking and sedentary life
   1. She is obese
   2. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus
   3. Her age and tobacco use
   4. She leads a sedentary lifestyle

Combined oral contraceptive is contraindicated in women older than 45, breastfeeding, smoking, HTN, diabetes or hx of stroke

 

1. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman the NP detects a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further evaluation.
   1. Fibroadenoma
   2. Polycystic breast disease Generalized breast pain or tenderness. Green or dark brown nonbloody nipple discharge that tends to leak without pressure or squeezing
   3. An intraductal papilloma
   4. Pituitary prolactinoma

 

Intraductal papillomas are usually solitary and smaller than 1 cm. They are located in large lactiferous sinuses or ducts and have a tendency to bleed. Quizlet Nipple Discharge

 

1. Rh negative women should receive Rho (D) immunoglobulin at what gestational time?
   1. 6 weeks
   2. 12 weeks
   3. 28 weeks
   4. 35 weeks

What happens is the client is Rh negative and has a negative antibody screen?

She will need repeat antibody screens and should receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks’ gestation (Quizlet Antepartum Diagnostic Testing Saunders)

 

1. When interpreting a complete blood count (CBC) lab report which of the following results describes the size of the RBCs?
   1. Hemoglobin
   2. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
   3. Red cell distribution width (RDw)
   4. Hematocrit

 

The mean corpuscle (cell) volume (MCV) is a measurement of the average size of the RBCs. Small-sized RBCs result in a lower MCV, while larger RBCs result in a higher MCV.

 

1. What medication should be avoided when prescribe prophylactic therapy for headache
   1. Verapamil
   2. Propranolol
   3. Venlataxin (Effexor)
   4. Nimodipine

Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake inhibitor have the most serious side effect. Patients should have drug free period for 3-4 weeks after every 6 months of treatment (pharmacology book page 1047)

 

1. What is the mechanism of action of prostaglandin E1 (PG1) in a patient with transposition of the great arteries
   1. To maintain equal pressure in the ventricles
   2. To maintain patency of the great arteries
   3. To produce vasodilation on …………….
   4. To prevent cyanotic episodes by trapping blood in the lower …………

 

1. Which of the following complaints best describes lower extremity calf pain associated with peripheral artery disease
   1. A sharp stabbing pains
   2. A dull pain or cramp
   3. An electric shock
   4. A pulsating pain

Peripheral artery disease signs and symptoms include: Painful cramping in one or both of your hips, thighs or calf muscles after certain activities, such as walking or climbing stairs (claudication) Leg numbness or weakness. Coldness in your lower leg or foot, especially when compared with the other side. (Mayoclinic)

 

 

1. Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47- year-old premenopausal woman?
   1. Hirsutism
   2. Gynecomastia
   3. Oligomenorrhea
   4. Acne

Hyperprolactinemia causes typical symptoms in premenopausal women and in men, but not in postmenopausal women. Premenopausal women — Hyperprolactinemia in premenopausal women causes hypogonadism, with symptoms that include infertility, oligomenorrhea, or amenorrhea and less often galactorrhea. (uptodate.com/clinical-manifestations)

 

 

1. When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing which medication should be given to relieve the symptom?
   1. Short acting bronchodilator
   2. Long acting bronchodilator
   3. Inhaled corticosteroid
   4. Combination of methylxanthine and long acting bronchodilator

Short-Acting Beta Agonist (SABA) inhalers; used for acute asthma attacks; quickly reduce airway constriction & restore normal airflow; agonists/stimulators of adrenergic receptors in SNS (sympathomimetics); albuterol (Ventolin), levalburterol (Xopenex), pirbuterol (Maxair), terbutaline (Brethine), metaproterenol (Alupent). (Quizlet Pharm Ch 37 Respiratory drugs)

 

1. Which immunization reduces a patient’s risk for infection with the virus that causes painful localized blistering rash?
   1. Smallpox vaccine
   2. Varicella vaccine (chicken Pox)
   3. Shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine
   4. Meningococcal vaccine

Shingles (herpes zoster) is an extremely painful skin rash caused by the varicella zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. In people who have had chickenpox, the virus is never fully cleared from the body; instead, it remains dormant in the nerve tissues. (medicinet.com/shingles)

 

 

1. Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following EXCEPT:
   1. new onset after age 50
   2. aggravated or relieved by change of position
   3. precipitated by Valsalva maneuver
   4. Headache relieved with mild infrequent use of analgesics

 

1. The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron supplement
   1. With milk to avoid stomach upset
   2. With milk of magnesia at bedtime to avoid constipation
   3. On an empty stomach between meals

 

1. 1. For 30 days to 5 weeks

Because iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach, patients should be advised to take the supplement an hour before meals. Most patients can use the less expensive, more standard forms of ferrous sulfate (Quizlet Hematology Cht 33)

 

1. Which one of the following statements is true of Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
   1. The injury is self-inflicted as the patient is seeking attention from others
   2. Under the supervision of adults other than the abuser, the patient does not exhibit symptoms
   3. The caregiver is usually not involver in the abusive behavior
   4. The abuser is often inattentive and uncaring towards the victim

Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSP) is a mental illness. It is also a form of child abuse. It affects caregivers, especially caregivers of children. It is also known as factitious disorder by proxy. Mothers of small children are most often affected by this condition. Fathers or other caregivers can have it as well.

 

 

1. Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of substance abuse in adolescents?
   1. Poor school performance
   2. change in sleep habits
   3. increased blood pressure
   4. changes in behavior

 

1. A woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has a maternity history of one full term vaginal delivery, a set of premature triplets delivered vaginally, and a first trimester abortion. Using her TPAL system to document her maternal status
   1. Gravida 4 para 1114
   2. Gravida 4, para 1314 4 is the number of living children GTPAL

c. Gravida 3, para 1114

1. 1. Gravida 3, para 1112

 

Gravida, Term babies, Preterm babies, Abort and Living child

 

1. The nurse practitioner palpates an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node in a 30 years old patient. The Nurse Practitioner should asses the patents
   1. Throat, face, and right ear
   2. Neck and supraclavicular region
   3. Right forearm and hand
   4. Right groin and abdomen

Lower arm and hand for erythema and swelling

 

 

1. Anticholinergics are indicated for the treatment of
   1. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
   2. Renal insufficiency

 

1. 1. Urge incontinence
   2. Overflow incontinence

 

Anticholinergics are drugs that block the action of acetylcholine. Anticholinergics can treat a variety of conditions, including: urinary incontinence, overactive bladder, COPD, They also help block involuntary muscle movements associated with certain diseases such as Parkinson’s disease.

 

 

1. A patient presents with signs of chest pain, the nurse practitioner observes jugular venous distention. Their finding is consistent with
   1. Hypertension
   2. Heart failure
   3. Asthma
   4. Pneumonia

Heart failure causes decreased cardiac output when the heart fails as a pump and the circulation becomes backed up and congested. Signs and symptoms: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, decreased blood pressure, dependent, pitting edema; anxiety; confusion; jugular vein distention; fatigue. The S3 may be the earliest sign of heart failure.(Studyblue)

 

 

1. On examination of the neck, a dome shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as
   1. Keloid
   2. Tophi
   3. A cutaneous cyst
   4. Chondrodermatitis

 

Dome-shaped lump in the dermis forms a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis. A dark dot (blackhead) may be visible on its surface. Usually either an Epidermoid cyst (common on face/neck) or pilar (trichilemmal) cyst (common in the scalp). Both may become inflamed. Error! Filename not specified.

 

1. Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with:
   1. Hiatal hernia
   2. Gastroesophageal reflux
   3. Peptic ulcer disease
   4. Esophageal cancer

 

Classic GERD symptoms are: Heartburn, Regurgitation: bitter, acidic fluid in the mouth when lying down or bending over

 

 

1. A 70 years old man walks 20 minutes most days of the week. He has begun to complain of pain of his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he

 

is unable to complete his 20 minutes walks without stopping to rest. What choice best describes the pain associated with peripheral artery disease?

1. 1. A sharp, stabbing pain
   2. A dull pain and cramp
   3. An electric shock
   4. A pulsating pain

Peripheral Artery disease signs and symptoms include: Painful cramping after certain activities, such as walking or climbing stairs (claudication), Leg numbness or weakness, Coldness in leg or foot, especially when compared with the other side, Sores on toes, feet or legs that won’t heal, A change in the color , Hair loss or slower hair growth, Shiny skin, No pulse or a weak pulse in legs or feet

 

 

1. Papilledema is a cause for concern because it is suggestive of
   1. Optic atrophy
   2. Microaneurysms
   3. Increased intracranial pressure
   4. Retinal hemorrhage

Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure.

 

1. A 38-year-old patient with a history of abdominal pain presents to the nurse practitioner. Findings reveal superficial edema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue around the umbilicus. Hemorrhagic pancreatic is suspected because of which finding?
   1. A positive Gray Turner’s sign

 

1. 1. A positive Cullen’s sign

 

1. 1. Kaposi’s sarcoma

 

1. 1. Petechiae

 

 

 

1. A 57 years old post-menopausal female presents with a complaint of vaginal burning, pruritus and painful intercourse. On examination, the nurse practitioner would be most concern with the findings

 

1. 1. A thin, pale, dry vaginal mucosa
   2. Absence of rugae
   3. A friable cervix
   4. Raised yellowish cervical lesion

 

The term “friable” refers to tissue that is easily irritated, which makes it more prone to inflammation, bleeding, or tearing. Vaginal rugae disappear in those with an estrogen deficiency and those women who are older. Nabothian cysts (also called epithelial cyst ) are common and benign and are considered a normal feature of the adult cervix.. They may be translucent or opaque, whitish to yellow. Atrophic vaginitis is a vaginal disorder that usually happens after menopause appearing as thin, pale and dry.

 

1. What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first line therapy for Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis or something else
   1. Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatic arthritis
   2. NSAID use at lowest effective dose
   3. Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day
   4. Exercise and weight loss

Weight loss and exercise are useful in OA. Excess weight puts stress on knee joints and hips and low back. For every 10 pounds of weight lost over 10 years, reduces the chance of developing knee OA by up to 50 %. Exercise can improve muscle strength, decrease joint pain and stiffness, and lower the chance of disability due to OA.

 

1. Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin (Coumadin)?
   1. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
   2. Trimethroprim/sulfamethaxazole (Bactrim)
   3. Cirpofloxacin (Cipro)
   4. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

 

 

1. The lymphatic ducts drain into the (APEA)
   1. arterial system
   2. venous system
   3. vertebral bodies of the spine
   4. shoulder

 

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for trichomoniasis in a non- pregnant woman?
   1. Metronidazole (flagyl)
   2. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
   3. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
   4. Clotrimazole (lotrimin)

 

1. Osteosarcoma in a pediatric patient is most often diagnosed when there is:
   1. Pain in the affected bone

 

1. 1. Pathologic fracture
   2. Repeat fracture
   3. Apophyseal avulsion

Osteosarcoma is the most common type of bone cancer in children and teens. Bone pain and tenderness the most common symptom. It arises most often in the wide ends of long bones, such as the femur and tibia in the upper and lower leg, and the humerus in the upper arm.

 

 

1. In a patient who has a history of migraine headaches, which characteristics is most common?
   1. Focal deficits
   2. Family history
   3. Weakness
   4. Initial onset after age 35

 

1. Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include:
   1. Nausea and diarrhea
   2. Vomiting and pain
   3. Hematemesis and bloody stool
   4. Indigestion and anorexia

Symptoms of a small bowel obstruction include vomiting from vagal nerve stimulation, pain from bowel wall distention, and abdominal distension from accumulation of chyme or ascites. (Quizlet Patho GI System)

 

1. Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except
   1. A foreign body in the nasal canal
   2. A nasal polyp
   3. Drug induced rhinitis
   4. A deviated sputum

 

1. A 7 years old child has been diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The drug class that should be avoided is:
   1. Antihistamines
   2. Expectorants
   3. Decongestants
   4. Nasal steroids

 

1. A patient present with an elongated head with bony prominence of the forehead, nose and lower jaw. These facial features could be suggestive of:
   1. Nephrotic syndrome

 

1. 1. Acromegaly

 

1. 1. Cushing’s syndrome
   2. Parkinson’s disease

 

Increased growth hormone produces enlargement of bone and soft tissues. Head elongated with bony prominence of forehead nose, and lower jaw. Soft tissues enlarge. Coarsened features. (Quizlet HEENT Abnormality Tables)

 

1. Why would a child diagnosed with beta thalassemia and hemosiderosis receive deferoxamine (desferal)?
   1. To prevent blood transfusion reactions
   2. To simulate red blood cell production
   3. To improve the oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs
   4. To eliminate excessive iron and prevent organ damage

given SQ by pump overnight to prevent free iron released with RBC destruction from building up in tissues; binds the free iron so it doesn’t do damage in tissues (Quizlet Hematology and Oncology Unit 6)

 

1. A patient has newly diagnosed hypothyroidism. What are the patients TSH level expected to be?
   1. Higher than normal

 

1. 1. Lower than normal

 

1. 1. Within normal range

 

1. 1. TSH is not used to diagnose hypothyroidism Suggest that the provider lower the dose.
2. Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?
   1. Absence of symptoms
   2. Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area.
   3. Rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles
   4. Poor muscle coordination

Other symptoms of secondary syphilis include: sore throat. fever. swollen lymph

glands. headaches. fatigue. muscle aches. wart-like patches around skin folds or genitals.

 

 

1. An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of:
   1. Constipation
   2. Fecal incontinence

 

1. 1. Urinary tract infections

 

1. 1. Prostate cancer

 

BPH increases the risk of: Acute urinary retention , UTI and Sepsis.

 

1. A characteristic lesion observed in a male with primary syphilis is a:

A) Group of small scattered vesicles B) Chancre

1. Papule of many shapes

 

1. Non-tender penile indurated nodule

 

Primary syphilis typically presents as a solitary, painless chancre, whereas

secondary syphilis can have a wide variety of symptoms, especially fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, and genital or perineal condyloma latum.

 

1. During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe
   1. Colchicine (Colcrys)
   2. Allopurinol (zyloprim)
   3. Steroids
   4. NSAIDS

 

Colchicine has two distinct applications in gout. First, it can be used to treat an acute gouty attack. Second, it can help prevent attacks in chronic gout

 

 

1. What two vitamins and minerals should be included in oral multivitamins in women
   1. Folic Acid and Vitamin C
   2. Iron and Vitamin B12
   3. Vitamin D and Iron
   4. Folic Acid and Iron

 

1. In a patient with bacterial meningitis, the most common reason for finding of headaches:
   1. Meningeal erythema
   2. Increased intracranial pressure

 

1. 1. Meningeal irritation

 

1. 1. Swelling of the spinal cord

 

1. Janeway lesions, petechiae and Oster nodes are associated with:
   1. Gonococcemia

 

1. 1. Infective endocarditis

 

1. 1. Hyperthyroidism

 

1. 1. Peripheral vascular disease

 

1. A patient present with decreased hearing related to antibiotic use. Which class of antibiotics is this?

 

1. 1. Aminoglycosides
   2. Beta-lactams
   3. Cephalosporins
   4. Macrolides

Aminoglycosides antibiotics, vancomycin and aspirin are some medication that can cause hearing loss.

 

1. Which antihypertensive would be appropriate to prescribe for a hypertensive patient (B/P 150/95) that is in her third trimester?
   1. Candesartan
   2. Lisinopril

 

1. 1. Methyldopa

 

1. 1. Furosemide

 

Oral methyldopa has been assigned to pregnancy category B. Methyldopa is a drug of first choice for control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most widely prescribed antihypertensive

 

1. A 40-year-old admits to multiple sex partners presents with several lesions over his body. Finding reveals hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet. These lesions are most likely associated with:
   1. Gonococcemia

 

1. 1. Infective endocarditis

 

1. 1. Hyperthyroidism

 

1. 1. Peripheral vascular disease

 

 

1. Which agent is NOT useful in prophylactic treatment of migraine headaches?
   1. Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
   2. Amitriptyline (elavil)
   3. Verapamil (verelant)
   4. Metropolol (lopresor)

Sumatriptan is used to treat migraines (not to prevent it). It helps to relieve headache, pain, and other migraine symptoms (including nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light/sound).

 

1. The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following expect the (APEA)
   1. Right side of the heard

 

1. 1. Right upper thorax

 

1. 1. Right arm

 

1. 1. Right leg

 

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:
   1. A completed blood count

 

1. 1. Magnetic resonance imaging

 

1. 1. A nuclear bone scans

 

1. 1. A bone marrow examination

 

 

 

1. The medication that blocks the transportation of glucose across the intestines into the blood stream to target prandial blood glucose is:
   1. Metformin (Glucophage XR)
   2. Acarbose (Precose)

 

1. 1. Rosiglitazone (Avandia)

 

1. 1. Glipizide (Glucotrol XL)

 

Acarbose inhibits enzymes (glycoside hydrolases) needed to digest carbohydrates, specifically, alpha-glucosidase enzymes in the brush border of the small intestines, and pancreatic alpha- amylase.

 

1. Prostate pain is usually located in the:
   1. Supra pubic area

 

1. 1. Back

 

1. 1. Perineum

 

1. 1. In the glans penis

 

Prostate pain is usually lo acted in the lower abdomen, back, or groin

 

1. A nurse practitioner examines the skin of an elderly patient which finding below is NOT benign lesion associated with the aging process?
   1. Xerosis

 

1. 1. Cherry angiomas and senile purpura

 

1. 1. Senile keratosis and senile lentigines

 

1. 1. Dermatophytosis

 

Dermatophytosis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection of the skin. Typically it results in a red, itchy, scaly, circular rash.

 

1. A 65-year-old male presents with findings of symmetric thorax with moderate kyphosis and anterior diameter. Chest expansion is decreased and the diaphragm descending 2 cm bilaterally. These findings relate to:
   1. Pneumothorax

 

1. 1. Plural effusion

 

1. 1. A fractured rib

 

1. 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

 

1. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is recommended for very short-term use in patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) because:
   1. Possible resistance
   2. Occurrence of hemolytic anemia
   3. Gastritis
   4. Cost

Headache, rash, pruritus and occasional gastrointestinal disturbance. An anaphylactoid-like reaction has been described. Methemoglobinemia, hemolytic anemia, renal and hepatic toxicity have been reported, usually at overdosage levels

 

1. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:
   1. Tension headaches
   2. Migraines with aura
   3. Unilateral headaches
   4. Cluster headaches

Combine contraceptives is a good choice for patients childbearing age younger than 35 with NO aura migraine (hollier video part 1)

 

1. The addition of benzoyl peroxide to erythromycin for the topical treatment of acne:
   1. Improve the efficacy of erythromycin

 

1. 1. Decrease the risk of desquamation

 

1. 1. Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin

 

1. 1. Increases the time patient can be exposed to sunlight

 

 

1. An elderly male with benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) should be advised to avoid antihistamines. What is the reason for this?
   1. Urinary incontinence

 

1. 1. Constipation

 

1. 1. Orthostatic hypotension

 

1. 1. Urinary retention

 

1. Examination of the hair reveals a fine silky appearance. This finding may be seen in patients that have:
   1. Hypothyroidism

 

1. 1. Hyperthyroidism

 

1. 1. Type 2 diabetes

 

1. 1. Celiac disease

 

1. A patient develops a cough secondary to an angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE). The most appropriate statement related to ACE-I cough is that the cough typically:
   1. Resolves within a week after stopping the ACE inhibitor

 

1. 1. Resolves with splitting the daily dose to twice daily dosing

 

1. 1. Occurs with an angiotensin- II receptor blocker (ARB)

 

1. 1. Affects men more than women

 

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